Sabtu, 01 Mei 2010

Final CCNA 3 (H)

1. Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?

xxxlowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?

to activate port Fa0/10
xxxto make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10

Jumat, 30 April 2010

Final CCNA 2 (L)

1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

xxxIt connects multiple IP networks.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
xxxIt determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain

2. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?

ROM, TFTP server, flash
xxxflash, TFTP server, ROM
flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
NVRAM, TFTP server, flash

Final CCNA 3 (G)

01. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?

all hosts that are shown
only hosts B and C
xxxonly hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, D, E, and F
only hosts D, E, and F

02. What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?

Connect each PC directly to a router port
Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.
xxxDivide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.
Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.

Kamis, 29 April 2010

Part II: Cisco IOS Tips and Tricks

Timestamping Messages

When the router displays log or debug messages, it defaults to showing you how long the router had been up when the event occurred. Many times, it is more helpful instead to know the date and time when the event occurred. The command for this is service timestamps [log | debug] datetime localtime in global configuration mode. If you use this mode of logging, you should set the clock and date as shown in the next section.

Example:
Router(config)#^Z
Router#
00:39:40: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by console

Router(config)#service timestamps log datetime localtime
Router(config)#^Z
Mar 2 15:47:04: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by console

Setting the Clock and Time Zone

You can set the clock on the router with the privileged mode command: clock set . When issuing this command, you must use the actual name of the month, not its number.
You may also want to set the time zone and daylight savings time adjustments. This is done in global configuration mode. The commands are: clock timezone , and clock summer-time recurring.

Part I: Cisco IOS Tips and Tricks

Auto-Completion of Commands

When typing a command, it is only necessary to type enough letters to make the command unique at your current configuration mode. Once you have enough letters that the IOS can understand what command you mean, you can stop typing. Type a few letters, then press the TAB key – if the router understands the command, it will complete it for you. If the router doesn’t understand the command, type another letter or two, press TAB again, and see if that’s enough. Typing fewer letters per command speeds up your configuration, and creates fewer changes for typos!

Disable DNS Server Lookup

When you type something (at the user or privileged prompt) that the router doesn’t recognize as a command, it assumes that you want to telnet there. So it telnets there if it’s an IP address, or looks in the config for a host table if you typed a word. If the word can’t be resolved to an IP address via a host table, the router broadcasts for a DNS server. This is good if what you typed was an IP address or host name that you want to telnet to – it means you don’t have to type the word “telnet.” This is bad if you just mistyped a command. It ties up the router until the DNS request times out. You can turn off the DNS request with the command no ip domain-lookup at the global config mode.

TestInside 642-845 ONT

1. Which three characteristics of the traffic flow are taken into consideration when the QoS-for-VPNs feature (QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies appropriate QoS service on tunnel interfaces? (Choose three.)

A. IP precedence bits
B. DSCP bits
C. original port numbers
D. DE bits
E. source IP address
F. destination IP address
Answer: CEF

2. Which two QoS statements are true about the use of the SDM QoS wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Business-critical traffic includes VoIP and voice signaling packets.
B. SDM can be used to configure a basic QoS policy for incoming traffic on WAN interfaces and IPsec tunnels.
C. SDM can provide QoS for real-time traffic and business-critical traffic.
D. SDM creates a custom-queuing (CQ) or a priority-queuing (PQ) policy.
E. SDM creates a low latency queuing (LLQ) service policy with its associated classes.
F. When allocating bandwidth, values can be entered in either bandwidth percentage or kilobytes per second (kBps).

Answer: CE

PASS4SURE CCNP BSCI 642-901 v3.10















PASS4SURE CCNP COMPOSITE 642-892 v3.23
















Rabu, 28 April 2010

Final CCNA 4 (H)

1. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?

PPP
SLIP
xxxHDLC
Frame Relay

2. What is a characteristic feature of a worm?

xxxexploits a known vulnerability
attaches to executable programs
masquerades as a legitmate program
lies dormant until triggered by an event, time, or date

3.An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

Selasa, 27 April 2010

The Evolving Network Model - The Hierarchical Design Model

Cisco used the three-level Hierarchical Design Model for years. This older model provided a high-level idea of how a reliable network might be conceived, but it was largely conceptual because it didn’t provide specific guidance. Figure 1-1 shows the Hierarchical Design Model.

Figure 1-1 Hierarchical Design Model











PASS4SURE CCNP ONT 642-845 v3.10










Senin, 26 April 2010

TestKing v22 CCNA 640-802

QUESTION NO: 1
Both switches and hubs are being utilized within the TestKing network. Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity in this network?
A. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take
B. Hubs can filter frames
C. Switches do not forward broadcasts
D. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network
E. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts
F. None of the above

Jumat, 23 April 2010

The Application Layer

The Application layer of the OSI model marks the spot where users actually communicate to the computer. This layer only comes into play when it’s apparent that access to the network is going to be needed soon. Take the case of Internet Explorer (IE). You could uninstall every trace of networking components from a system, such as TCP/IP, NIC card, and so on, and you could still use IE to view a local HTML document—no problem. But things would definitely get messy if you tried to do something like view an HTML document that must be retrieved using HTTP or nab a file with FTP or TFTP. That’s because IE will respond to requests such as those by attempting to access the Application layer. And what’s happening is that the Application layer is acting as an interface between the actual application program—which isn’t at all a part of the layered structure—and the next layer down by providing ways for the application to send information down through the protocol stack. In other words, IE doesn’t truly reside within the Application layer—it interfaces with Application layer protocols when it needs to deal with remote resources.

The OSI Reference Model

One of the greatest functions of the OSI specifications is to assist in data transfer between disparate hosts—meaning, for example, that they enable us to transfer data between a Unix host
and a PC or a Mac.

The OSI isn’t a physical model, though. Rather, it’s a set of guidelines that application developers can use to create and implement applications that run on a network. It also provides aframework for creating and implementing networking standards, devices, and internetworking schemes.

Models Networking

When networks first came into being, computers could typically communicate only with computers from the same manufacturer. For example, companies ran either a complete DECnet solution or an IBM solution—not both together. In the late 1970s, the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model was created by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) to break this barrier.

The OSI model was meant to help vendors create interoperable network devices and software in the form of protocols so that different vendor networks could work with each other. Like world peace, it’ll probably never happen completely, but it’s still a great goal. The OSI model is the primary architectural model for networks. It describes how data and network information are communicated from an application on one computer through the network media to an application on another computer. The OSI reference model breaks this approach into layers.

Networking Basics

Before we explore internetworking models and the specifications of the OSI reference model, you’ve got to understand the big picture and learn the answer to the key question, Why is it so important to learn Cisco internetworking?

Networks and networking have grown exponentially over the last 15 years—understandably so. They’ve had to evolve at light speed just to keep up with huge increases in basic missioncritical user needs such as sharing data and printers as well as more advanced demands such as videoconferencing. Unless everyone who needs to share network resources is located in the same office area (an increasingly uncommon situation), the challenge is to connect the sometimes many relevant networks together so all users can share the networks’ wealth.

Configuring VLANs on Cisco Catalyst Switches and Routers

The steps in the Catalyst 1924 Switch:

Switch#config t
Switch(config)#vlan 10
Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#interface e0/1
Switch(config-fi)#vlan-membership static 10
Switch(config-if)#interface e0/2
Switch(config-if)#vlan-membership static 10
Switch(config-if)#interface e0/4

Link Collection Super Complete Cisco Certifications (CCNA, CCNP, CCIE etc.)

I tried to collect the download link for the friends who are or want to take a certification from Cisco Systems network. I took all the links from trusted sources is guaranteed accurate. Below are Links that you can download directly via Rapidshare. Check it out!

CNA : 640-822 ICND1 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 v1.0

CCNA : 640-816 ICND2 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 v1.0
OR
CCNA : 640-802
ELSE
CCENT : 640-822 ICND1 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 v1.0

Access Control Lists (ACLs)

ACL is simply used to allow or not the package from the hosts toward a particular goal. ACL consisted of rules and conditions that determine the network traffic and determines whether the router will process the packet will be passed or not. This module will explain the standards and the extended ACL, ACL placement and some applications of the use of ACL.

ACL is a list of conditions used to test the network that tries trfaik through a router interface. These lists tell the router where packets will be accepted or rejected. Acceptance and rejection based on certain conditions.

To filter traffic jaringa, ACL determines if the packet is passed or blocked at router interfaces. Router ACL to make decisions based on source address, destination address, protocol, and port number.

Routing and routing protocols

Routing is the process whereby a router to forward packets to the destination network. A router makes decisions based on the IP address that is addressed by the package. All routers use the destination IP address to send packets. In order routing decisions are correct, the router must learn how to achieve goals. When routers use dynamic routing, information learned from other routers. When using static routing, a network administrator to configure the information on the network you want to target manually.

If static routing is used, then the configuration must be performed manually, the network administrator must insert or remove a static route in case of topology changes. On a large scale network, if still using static routing, it will be a huge waste of time network administrators to update its routing table. Therefore, static routing is only possible for small-scale networks. While the bias is applied in dynamic routing of large scale network and requires more skills than administrators.

WAN and Router

Wide Area Network (WAN) is a data communications network that connects users in a network that is in a large geographic area. WAN has several important characteristics that differentiate it from the LAN. In the first lesson in this module will discuss the introduction of WAN technologies and protocols. And will also explain how the similarities and differences between the WAN and LAN.

It is very important to understand the physical layer components in a router. This knowledge base will add the information and capabilities that will be required to configure the router and set the routing network. This module also describes the technique of the physical connection of the various interfaces.

WAN is a data communications network, spread on a large geographic area like a province or country. WAN always uses transmission facilities provided by telecommunications companies such as telephone service company.

Selasa, 20 April 2010

Minggu, 18 April 2010

Kamis, 15 April 2010

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 (B)

1) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
ans:
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

2) Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

CCNA 2 Chapter 1

1. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
ans:
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

2. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
ans:
1
4

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 (B)

1. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
ans:
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate

2. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
ans:
Interface IP address

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 (B)

1. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
ans:
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

2. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
ans:
16

CCNA 2 Chapter 5 (B)

1. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still valid in the routing table of Router1. How much longer will it take for Router1 to mark the route invalid by setting the metric to 16?
ans:
155 seconds

2. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
ans:
10.0.0.0/8

CCNA 2 Chapter 6

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
ans:
255.255.255.252

2. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
ans:
192.1.1.224/28

CCNA 2 Chapter 7 (B)

1. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
ans:
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

2. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
ans:
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

CCNA 2 Chapter 8 (B)

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
ans:
ip classless

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
ans:
7

CCNA 2 Chapter 9 (B)

1. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
ans:
topology table

2. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
ans:
they have different autonomous-system numbers

CCNA 2 Chapter 10 (B)

1. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
ans:
Dijkstra

2. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
ans:
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

Rabu, 14 April 2010

Pass4Sure CCNA 640-802










Download Link

Pass4Sure 1

CCNA 640-802 Pass4sure










Download Link

Selasa, 13 April 2010

History Cisco

Around the 1980s, a married couple Sandy Lerner and Len Bosack, they both work in different depatement at Stanford University. There are obstacles in the communication between them, then this couple created a gateway server that uses IP protocol in the living room can make it easier for computers from the two department from being able to communicate with each other. They were eventually established cisco systems (note the small c) in 1984 by launching a small commercial gateway which in turn can change the world of networking. In 1992 the company was changed to Cisco Systems, inc.

Jumat, 09 April 2010

Final CCNA 2 (K)

1. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
packet switching
path selection

2. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2

Final CCNA 2 (J)

1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
ans:
The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
ans:
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.

CCNA 1 Chapter 2 (B)

1)Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical
Data Link

2)What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
ans:
supports error detection

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 (C)

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
ans:
This contains a Telnet request.
This is a TCP header.

2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
ans:
0 to 1023

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 (B)

1) In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
ans:
destination network address

2) What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
ans:
source and destination IP address

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 (B)

1) How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
ans:
32

2) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
ans:
255.255.255.192

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 (B)

1) Which IEEE specification defines Wi-Fi technology?
ans:
802.11

2) What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
ans:
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media

CCNA 1 Chapter 8 (C)

1) What are the five elements that make up the fiber-optic cable?
ans:
core, cladding, buffer, strength material, and outer jacket

2) In a UTP crossover cable, which pairs of pins are crossed? (Choose two.)
ans:
1 and 2
3 and 6

CCNA 1 Chapter 9 (C)

1) In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
ans:
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2) Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical layer
Data-link layer

CCNA 1 Chapter 10 (B)

1) Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
ans:
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2) Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
ans:
console interface

Kamis, 08 April 2010

Final CCNA 4 ( G )

1.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM. After this configuration shown in the exhibit is applied, the SDM interface of the router is still not accessible. What is the cause of the problem?

*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.


2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

Final CCNA 4 ( F )

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)

*** A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
*** A modem terminates an analog local loop.
*** A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.

2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?

CIR
DE
*** DLCI
ISDN
FRAD
PVC

Final CCNA 4 ( E )

1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
• routable translation
• dynamic translation
• static translation
• port address translation

2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
• ip nat inside Raleigh overload
• ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh

Final CCNA 4 ( D )

1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment

• replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
• migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
• a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
• a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console

Rabu, 07 April 2010

Final CCNA 4 ( C )

1. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
check sum
digital certificates
encapsulation
encryption

hashing

2. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows "up, line protocol up". The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
network layer
data link layer
physical layer

Final CCNA 4 ( A )

1. A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West town. How can this be explained?
The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.
The West side of town is downloading larger packets.
xxxThe service provider is closer to the location on the East side.
More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to
192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
xxxinterface Fa0/1, outbound

Minggu, 28 Maret 2010

CCNA 4 Chapter 8

1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

data link

2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.

3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

incorrect clock rate

CCNA 4 Chapter 7

1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?

The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

209.165.20.25

3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?

16

CCNA 4 Chapter 6

1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)

channel widths
modulation techniques

2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?

pre-shared key

3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)

allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment

CCNA 4 Chapter 5

1. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of the configuration that is shown?
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.

2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

protocol suite
source address
destination address

3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?

It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.

CCNA 4 Chapter 4

1. What is the best defense for protecting a network from phishing exploits?

Schedule training for all users.

2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)

It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.

3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

CCNA 4 Chapter 3

1. Which best describes the benefit of using Frame Relay as opposed to a leased line or ISDN service?

Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.

2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?

Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.

CCNA 4 Chapter 2

1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the function of the Serial 0/0/0 interface on the router after the commands are entered?

The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.

2. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)

The remote CSU or DSU has failed.
A timing problem has occurred on the cable.

CCNA 4 Chapter 1

1. Which statement about WAN protocols is correct?

Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.

2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?

The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.

3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?

ATM

Final CCNA 3 ( F )

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the
Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied to the switch?

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 10 ******TRUE
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Final CCNA 3 ( E )

01. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?
xxAS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
DS1, DS2, and CS1
AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2

02. Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
xxHost A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.

Final CCNA 3 ( D )

01. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
xxS1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

02. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of the commands that are shown in the exhibit?
Only clients on VLAN 2 will be able to use DHCP for addressing.
xxDHCP server responses will only be permitted on interface Fa0/2.
Only 100 clients are permitted to request DHCP addresses on VLAN 2.
Client requests for DHCP addresses will be filtered out if the requests are not received on interface Fa0/2.

Final CCNA 3 ( C )

1. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
*** interface fastethernet 0/0
no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11
interface fastethernet 0/0
mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

2. Refer to the graphic. If the switches are new and have been cabled as shown, which switch will become the root bridge?

*** SC
CE
JB
JP
JN
cannot be determined from the information given

Final CCNA 3 ( B )

1.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?
xxAS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
DS1, DS2, and CS1
AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2

2.A wireless client is attempting to establish a connection with a wireless access point. What process does the client use to discover the access points which are available to it?
xxprobing
beaconing
association
authentication

Final CCNA 3 ( A )

1. Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
xxlowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?
to activate port Fa0/10
xxto make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10

Sabtu, 27 Maret 2010

CCNA 3 Chapter 7

1. What will a wireless client transmit to discover the available WLAN networks?

probe request

2. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?

converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation

3. Why is security so important in wireless networks?

Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.

CCNA 3 Chapter 6

1. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.

2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?

Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

3. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?

The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

CCNA 3 Chapter 5

1. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)

shared
edge-type
point-to-point

2. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?

designated

3. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?

Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.

CCNA 3 Chapter 4

1. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?

VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.

2. What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)

unable to add VLANs
can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain

3. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)

domain name
domain password
version number

CCNA 3 Chapter 3

1. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?

on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode

2. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?

C, E

CCNA 3 Chapter 2

1. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)

Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

2. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?

global configuration mode

CCNA 3 Chapter 1

1. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)

10 Gigabit Ethernet
quality of service (QoS)
hot-swappable hardware

2. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?

Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.

Final CCNA 2 ( I )

1. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)

- neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled
- router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces

2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?

- The packet will be dropped.

Final CCNA 2 ( H )

1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
** from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1
** from R3 to 192.168.1.1
172.16.4.0/24


2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
** It will append the update information to the routing table.
It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
It will ignore the new update.

Final CCNA 2 ( G )

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
•xx The packet will be dropped
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

2. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
•xx prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
•xx allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown

• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
•xx permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down Network

Final CCNA 2 ( F )

1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)
• from R1 to 172.16.1.1
• xxfrom R1 to 192.168.3.1
• from R2 to 192.168.1.1
• from R2 to 192.168.3.1
• xxfrom R3 to 192.168.1.1

2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
• xxIt will append the update information to the routing table.
• It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
• It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
• It will ignore the new update.

3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
• They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
• They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
• They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
• xxThey are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology.
• xxThey are used to maintain neighbor relationships.

Final CCNA 2 ( E )

1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
-The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

Final CCNA 2 ( D )

1. Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a packet that has 172.16.0.0/16 as the best match in the routing table that is shown?
The packet is discarded. XXX
The packet is flooded out all interfaces.
The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0.
The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0.

2. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is used for the routing protocol and all interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. During testing, it is found that router R1 is unable to form an adjacency with R2. What is the cause of this problem?
Both routers have been configured with incorrect router IDs.
Both routers have been configured in different OSPF areas.
Both routers have been configured with an incorrect network type.
Both routers have been configured with different hello and dead intervals. XXX

Final CCNA 2 ( C )

1. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?
IGRP
RIPv1
RIPv2
*EIGRP

2.Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each
other. What can be the cause of this problem?
Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.
*RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.
RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.

Final CCNA 2 ( B )

1. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
***The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
***The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
***The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
***10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
***192.168.2.0/24

Final CCNA 2 ( A )

1. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
***The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
***The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
***The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
***10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
***192.168.2.0/24

Jumat, 26 Maret 2010

CCNA 2 Chapter 10

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32 network on router A?

network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3

2. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?

Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.

3. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?

topology table

CCNA 2 Chapter 9

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32 network on router A?

network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3

2. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?

Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.

3. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?

topology table

4. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)

query neighbors for a new route
search topology table for a feasible successor

CCNA 2 Chapter 8

1. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?

RIPv2

2. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?

performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet

3. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?

172.16.0.0/16

4. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:

R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1

What type of route is this?

a level 1 ultimate network route

CCNA 2 Chapter 7

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?

Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

2. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?

15 hops

3. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?

A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

4. 10.0.0.0/8

127.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16

CCNA 2 Chapter 5

1. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)

**SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
**SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.


2. Which mode will a configured router display at login?

global configuration mode
setup mode
ROM monitor mode
**user EXEC mode

CCNA 2 Chapter 4

1. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)

EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.

2. Which event will cause a triggered update?

a route is installed in the routing table

3. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?

3

4. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?

The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

CCNA 2 Chapter 3

1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?

R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?

show ip route

CCNA 2 Chapter 2

1. A router has one static route configured to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)

The destination network is moved to a different interface on the same router.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

2. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

3. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?

The route is removed from the table.

4. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).

a modem
a CSU/DSU device

CCNA 2 Chapter 1

1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

the number of routers between the source and destination device
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
**the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
**whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond


2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)

DSL
cable modem
Ethernet
**metro Ethernet
**T1
**T3

Final CCNA 1 ( I )

1 A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

Use the ipconfig /all command at the hosts command prompt.
X Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer's website.

2 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

X A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J

Final CCNA 1 ( H )

1. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to

request retransmission?

application

presentation

session

xx transport

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which layered network model is shown in the diagram?

Cisco

IETF

OSI

xx TCP/IP

Final CCNA 1 ( G )

1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
• 0060.7320.D632
• 0060.7320.D631
• 0040.8517.44C3
• 0009.B2E4.EE03
• 0010.C2B4.3421

2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
• A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.

• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
• It uses a token system to avoid collisions.

Final CCNA 1 ( F )

Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)

192.168.9.64/28

192.168.9.146/28

192.168.9.96/28

192.168.9.129/26

192.168.9.51/26

192.168.9.64/26

Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)

Four collision domains are present.

One logical network is represented.

Two broadcast domains are present.

Three networks are needed.

Three logical address ranges are required.

Final CCNA 1 ( E )

1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
- 0060.7320.D632
- 0060.7320.D631
- 0040.8517.44C3
- 0009.B2E4.EE03
- 0010.C2B4.3421

2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
- It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
- After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
- A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.

- Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
- Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
- It uses a token system to avoid collisions.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
- PC
- switch
- router interface fa 0/0
- router interface fa 0/1

Final CCNA 1 ( D )

1 A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

Use the ipconfig /all command at the host�s command prompt.
----> Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer's website.


2 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

----> A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J


3 Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

----> only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers

Final CCNA 1 ( C )

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TSP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5 and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24 . What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?

0040.8596.DE82

**0060.7320.B826

060.7320.D632

0010.4F74.AC09

0040.8596.DE81

exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
hub
switch
**router
wireless access point

Kamis, 25 Maret 2010

Final CCNA 1 ( B )

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console
of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration.
What type of cable is required for this connection?

straight-through cable
crossover cable
rollover cable
serial cable

2. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?

access switch
DHCP server
hub
router

3. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?

an FTP client
a Telnet client
a terminal emulation program
a web browser

Final CCNA 1 ( A )

When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to

acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data?

IP

UDP

Ethernet

a connectionless acknowledgement

an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service

Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

Connection 1 - rollover cable

Connection 2 - straight-through cable

Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - crossover cable

Connection 2 - rollover cable

Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - straight-through cable

Connection 2 - crossover cable

Connection 3 - crossover cable

Connection 1 - straight-through cable

Connection 2 - crossover cable

Connection 3 - straight-through cable

Connection 1 - crossover cable

Connection 2 - straight-through cable

Connection 3 - crossover cable

 
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