Sabtu, 01 Mei 2010
Final CCNA 3 (H)
xxxlowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address
2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?
to activate port Fa0/10
xxxto make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10
Jumat, 30 April 2010
Final CCNA 2 (L)
xxxIt connects multiple IP networks.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
xxxIt determines the best path to send packets.
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain
2. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot system command?
ROM, TFTP server, flash
xxxflash, TFTP server, ROM
flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
NVRAM, TFTP server, flash
Final CCNA 3 (G)
all hosts that are shown
only hosts B and C
xxxonly hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, D, E, and F
only hosts D, E, and F
02. What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?
Connect each PC directly to a router port
Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.
xxxDivide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.
Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
Kamis, 29 April 2010
Part II: Cisco IOS Tips and Tricks
When the router displays log or debug messages, it defaults to showing you how long the router had been up when the event occurred. Many times, it is more helpful instead to know the date and time when the event occurred. The command for this is service timestamps [log | debug] datetime localtime in global configuration mode. If you use this mode of logging, you should set the clock and date as shown in the next section.
Example:
Router(config)#^Z
Router#
00:39:40: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by console
Router(config)#service timestamps log datetime localtime
Router(config)#^Z
Mar 2 15:47:04: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by console
Setting the Clock and Time Zone
You can set the clock on the router with the privileged mode command: clock set
You may also want to set the time zone and daylight savings time adjustments. This is done in global configuration mode. The commands are: clock timezone
Part I: Cisco IOS Tips and Tricks
When typing a command, it is only necessary to type enough letters to make the command unique at your current configuration mode. Once you have enough letters that the IOS can understand what command you mean, you can stop typing. Type a few letters, then press the TAB key – if the router understands the command, it will complete it for you. If the router doesn’t understand the command, type another letter or two, press TAB again, and see if that’s enough. Typing fewer letters per command speeds up your configuration, and creates fewer changes for typos!
Disable DNS Server Lookup
When you type something (at the user or privileged prompt) that the router doesn’t recognize as a command, it assumes that you want to telnet there. So it telnets there if it’s an IP address, or looks in the config for a host table if you typed a word. If the word can’t be resolved to an IP address via a host table, the router broadcasts for a DNS server. This is good if what you typed was an IP address or host name that you want to telnet to – it means you don’t have to type the word “telnet.” This is bad if you just mistyped a command. It ties up the router until the DNS request times out. You can turn off the DNS request with the command no ip domain-lookup at the global config mode.
TestInside 642-845 ONT
A. IP precedence bits
B. DSCP bits
C. original port numbers
D. DE bits
E. source IP address
F. destination IP address
Answer: CEF
2. Which two QoS statements are true about the use of the SDM QoS wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Business-critical traffic includes VoIP and voice signaling packets.
B. SDM can be used to configure a basic QoS policy for incoming traffic on WAN interfaces and IPsec tunnels.
C. SDM can provide QoS for real-time traffic and business-critical traffic.
D. SDM creates a custom-queuing (CQ) or a priority-queuing (PQ) policy.
E. SDM creates a low latency queuing (LLQ) service policy with its associated classes.
F. When allocating bandwidth, values can be entered in either bandwidth percentage or kilobytes per second (kBps).
Answer: CE
Rabu, 28 April 2010
Final CCNA 4 (H)
PPP
SLIP
xxxHDLC
Frame Relay
2. What is a characteristic feature of a worm?
xxxexploits a known vulnerability
attaches to executable programs
masquerades as a legitmate program
lies dormant until triggered by an event, time, or date
3.An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
Selasa, 27 April 2010
The Evolving Network Model - The Hierarchical Design Model
Senin, 26 April 2010
TestKing v22 CCNA 640-802
Both switches and hubs are being utilized within the TestKing network. Which of the following is true regarding the use of switches and hubs for network connectivity in this network?
A. Switches take less time to process frames than hubs take
B. Hubs can filter frames
C. Switches do not forward broadcasts
D. Switches increase the number of collision domains in the network
E. Using hubs can increase the amount of bandwidth available to hosts
F. None of the above
Jumat, 23 April 2010
The Application Layer
The OSI Reference Model
and a PC or a Mac.
The OSI isn’t a physical model, though. Rather, it’s a set of guidelines that application developers can use to create and implement applications that run on a network. It also provides aframework for creating and implementing networking standards, devices, and internetworking schemes.
Models Networking
The OSI model was meant to help vendors create interoperable network devices and software in the form of protocols so that different vendor networks could work with each other. Like world peace, it’ll probably never happen completely, but it’s still a great goal. The OSI model is the primary architectural model for networks. It describes how data and network information are communicated from an application on one computer through the network media to an application on another computer. The OSI reference model breaks this approach into layers.
Networking Basics
Networks and networking have grown exponentially over the last 15 years—understandably so. They’ve had to evolve at light speed just to keep up with huge increases in basic missioncritical user needs such as sharing data and printers as well as more advanced demands such as videoconferencing. Unless everyone who needs to share network resources is located in the same office area (an increasingly uncommon situation), the challenge is to connect the sometimes many relevant networks together so all users can share the networks’ wealth.
Configuring VLANs on Cisco Catalyst Switches and Routers
Switch#config t
Switch(config)#vlan 10
Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#interface e0/1
Switch(config-fi)#vlan-membership static 10
Switch(config-if)#interface e0/2
Switch(config-if)#vlan-membership static 10
Switch(config-if)#interface e0/4
Link Collection Super Complete Cisco Certifications (CCNA, CCNP, CCIE etc.)
CNA : 640-822 ICND1 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 v1.0
CCNA : 640-816 ICND2 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 v1.0
OR
CCNA : 640-802
ELSE
CCENT : 640-822 ICND1 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 v1.0
Access Control Lists (ACLs)
ACL is a list of conditions used to test the network that tries trfaik through a router interface. These lists tell the router where packets will be accepted or rejected. Acceptance and rejection based on certain conditions.
To filter traffic jaringa, ACL determines if the packet is passed or blocked at router interfaces. Router ACL to make decisions based on source address, destination address, protocol, and port number.
Routing and routing protocols
If static routing is used, then the configuration must be performed manually, the network administrator must insert or remove a static route in case of topology changes. On a large scale network, if still using static routing, it will be a huge waste of time network administrators to update its routing table. Therefore, static routing is only possible for small-scale networks. While the bias is applied in dynamic routing of large scale network and requires more skills than administrators.
WAN and Router
It is very important to understand the physical layer components in a router. This knowledge base will add the information and capabilities that will be required to configure the router and set the routing network. This module also describes the technique of the physical connection of the various interfaces.
WAN is a data communications network, spread on a large geographic area like a province or country. WAN always uses transmission facilities provided by telecommunications companies such as telephone service company.
Selasa, 20 April 2010
Senin, 19 April 2010
Minggu, 18 April 2010
Kamis, 15 April 2010
CCNA 2 Chapter 3 (B)
ans:
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.
2) Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
CCNA 2 Chapter 1
ans:
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface
2. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
ans:
1
4
CCNA 2 Chapter 2 (B)
ans:
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate
2. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
ans:
Interface IP address
CCNA 2 Chapter 4 (B)
ans:
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes
2. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
ans:
16
CCNA 2 Chapter 5 (B)
ans:
155 seconds
2. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
CCNA 2 Chapter 6
ans:
255.255.255.252
2. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
ans:
192.1.1.224/28
CCNA 2 Chapter 7 (B)
1. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
ans:
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.
2. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
ans:
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.
CCNA 2 Chapter 8 (B)
ans:
ip classless
2. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
ans:
7
CCNA 2 Chapter 9 (B)
ans:
topology table
2. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
ans:
they have different autonomous-system numbers
CCNA 2 Chapter 10 (B)
ans:
Dijkstra
2. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
ans:
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas
Rabu, 14 April 2010
Selasa, 13 April 2010
History Cisco
Jumat, 09 April 2010
Final CCNA 2 (K)
ans:
packet switching
path selection
2. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
Final CCNA 2 (J)
ans:
The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.
2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
ans:
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.
CCNA 1 Chapter 2 (B)
ans:
Physical
Data Link
2)What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?
ans:
supports error detection
CCNA 1 Chapter 4 (C)
ans:
This contains a Telnet request.
This is a TCP header.
2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
ans:
0 to 1023
CCNA 1 Chapter 5 (B)
ans:
destination network address
2) What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
ans:
source and destination IP address
CCNA 1 Chapter 6 (B)
ans:
32
2) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
ans:
255.255.255.192
CCNA 1 Chapter 7 (B)
ans:
802.11
2) What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
ans:
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
defined as placement of data frames on the media
Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
CCNA 1 Chapter 8 (C)
ans:
core, cladding, buffer, strength material, and outer jacket
2) In a UTP crossover cable, which pairs of pins are crossed? (Choose two.)
ans:
1 and 2
3 and 6
CCNA 1 Chapter 9 (C)
ans:
Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.
2) Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
ans:
Physical layer
Data-link layer
CCNA 1 Chapter 10 (B)
ans:
connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds
2) Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
ans:
console interface
Kamis, 08 April 2010
Final CCNA 4 ( G )
*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
Final CCNA 4 ( F )
*** A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
*** A modem terminates an analog local loop.
*** A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
CIR
DE
*** DLCI
ISDN
FRAD
PVC
Final CCNA 4 ( E )
• routable translation
• dynamic translation
• static translation
• port address translation
2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
• ip nat inside Raleigh overload
• ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh
Final CCNA 4 ( D )
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment
• replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
• migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN
2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
• a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
• a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
Rabu, 07 April 2010
Final CCNA 4 ( C )
check sum
digital certificates
encapsulation
encryption
hashing
2. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows "up, line protocol up". The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
Final CCNA 4 ( A )
The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.
The West side of town is downloading larger packets.
xxxThe service provider is closer to the location on the East side.
More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.
2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to
192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
xxxinterface Fa0/1, outbound
Minggu, 28 Maret 2010
CCNA 4 Chapter 8
data link
2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect clock rate
CCNA 4 Chapter 7
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
209.165.20.25
3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
16
CCNA 4 Chapter 6
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
CCNA 4 Chapter 5
Users attempting to access hosts in the 192.168.30.0/24 network will be required to telnet to R3.
2. Which three parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
protocol suite
source address
destination address
3. Refer to the exhibit. How does this access list process a packet with the source address 10.1.1.1 and a destination of 192.168.10.13?
It is dropped because it does not match any of the items in the ACL.
CCNA 4 Chapter 4
Schedule training for all users.
2. What are three characteristics of a good security policy? (Choose three.)
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It communicates consensus and defines roles.
It defines how to handle security incidents.
3. The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.
The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.
CCNA 4 Chapter 3
Customers only pay for the local loop and the bandwidth they purchase from the network provider.
2. Which statement about Frame Relay subinterfaces is correct?
Point-to-point subinterfaces act like leased lines and eliminate split-horizon routing issues.
CCNA 4 Chapter 2
The serial link will be closed if the number of received packets at the destination node falls below 90 percent of the packets that are sent.
2. Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a serial interface, a technician enters the command show interface serial 0/0/0 . If the interface is in DCE mode, what two problems are likely to cause the indicated problem? (Choose two.)
The remote CSU or DSU has failed.
A timing problem has occurred on the cable.
CCNA 4 Chapter 1
Most WAN protocols use HDLC or a variant of HDLC as a framing mechanism.
2. Which statement is true of the functionality of the layers in the hierarchical network model?
The distribution layer aggregates WAN connections at the edge of the campus.
3. Which WAN technology uses a fixed payload of 48 bytes and is transported across both switched and permanent virtual circuits?
ATM
Final CCNA 3 ( F )
Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied to the switch?
Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 10 ******TRUE
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254
Final CCNA 3 ( E )
xxAS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
DS1, DS2, and CS1
AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2
02. Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1?
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs.
xxHost A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30.
Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port.
Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network.
Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
Final CCNA 3 ( D )
xxS1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.
02. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of the commands that are shown in the exhibit?
Only clients on VLAN 2 will be able to use DHCP for addressing.
xxDHCP server responses will only be permitted on interface Fa0/2.
Only 100 clients are permitted to request DHCP addresses on VLAN 2.
Client requests for DHCP addresses will be filtered out if the requests are not received on interface Fa0/2.
Final CCNA 3 ( C )
interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
*** interface fastethernet 0/0
no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11
interface fastethernet 0/0
mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
2. Refer to the graphic. If the switches are new and have been cabled as shown, which switch will become the root bridge?
*** SC
CE
JB
JP
JN
cannot be determined from the information given
Final CCNA 3 ( B )
xxAS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
DS1, DS2, and CS1
AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2
2.A wireless client is attempting to establish a connection with a wireless access point. What process does the client use to discover the access points which are available to it?
xxprobing
beaconing
association
authentication
Final CCNA 3 ( A )
xxlowest bridge ID
highest revision number
lowest numeric IP address
highest numeric MAC address
2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the configuration commands that are shown?
to activate port Fa0/10
xxto make the port a member of VLAN 30
to activate port security on port Fa0/10
to add VLAN 30 to the trunk that is connected to port Fa0/10
Sabtu, 27 Maret 2010
CCNA 3 Chapter 7
probe request
2. Which function is provided by a wireless access point?
converts data from 802.11 to 802.3 frame encapsulation
3. Why is security so important in wireless networks?
Wireless networks broadcast data over a medium that allows easy access.
CCNA 3 Chapter 6
Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.
2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?
Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
3. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?
The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.
CCNA 3 Chapter 5
shared
edge-type
point-to-point
2. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
designated
3. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
CCNA 3 Chapter 4
VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.
2. What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)
unable to add VLANs
can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain
3. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)
domain name
domain password
version number
CCNA 3 Chapter 3
on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode
2. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?
C, E
CCNA 3 Chapter 2
Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.
2. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
global configuration mode
CCNA 3 Chapter 1
10 Gigabit Ethernet
quality of service (QoS)
hot-swappable hardware
2. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?
Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.
Final CCNA 2 ( I )
- neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled
- router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces
2. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
- The packet will be dropped.
Final CCNA 2 ( H )
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
** from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1
** from R3 to 192.168.1.1
172.16.4.0/24
2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
** It will append the update information to the routing table.
It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
It will ignore the new update.
Final CCNA 2 ( G )
•xx The packet will be dropped
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.
2. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
•xx prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
•xx allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
•xx permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down Network
Final CCNA 2 ( F )
• from R1 to 172.16.1.1
• xxfrom R1 to 192.168.3.1
• from R2 to 192.168.1.1
• from R2 to 192.168.3.1
• xxfrom R3 to 192.168.1.1
2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table. It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
• xxIt will append the update information to the routing table.
• It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
• It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
• It will ignore the new update.
3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
• They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
• They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
• They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
• xxThey are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete network topology.
• xxThey are used to maintain neighbor relationships.
Final CCNA 2 ( E )
1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
-The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.
2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.
3. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
Final CCNA 2 ( D )
The packet is discarded. XXX
The packet is flooded out all interfaces.
The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0.
The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0.
2. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is used for the routing protocol and all interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and subnet masks. During testing, it is found that router R1 is unable to form an adjacency with R2. What is the cause of this problem?
Both routers have been configured with incorrect router IDs.
Both routers have been configured in different OSPF areas.
Both routers have been configured with an incorrect network type.
Both routers have been configured with different hello and dead intervals. XXX
Final CCNA 2 ( C )
IGRP
RIPv1
RIPv2
*EIGRP
2.Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each
other. What can be the cause of this problem?
Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.
*RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.
RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
Final CCNA 2 ( B )
***The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
***The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
***The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
***10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
***192.168.2.0/24
Final CCNA 2 ( A )
***The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
***The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
***The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
***10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
***192.168.2.0/24
Jumat, 26 Maret 2010
CCNA 2 Chapter 10
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3
2. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.
3. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
topology table
CCNA 2 Chapter 9
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3
2. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.
3. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
topology table
4. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
query neighbors for a new route
search topology table for a feasible successor
CCNA 2 Chapter 8
RIPv2
2. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet
3. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
172.16.0.0/16
4. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:
R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1
What type of route is this?
a level 1 ultimate network route
CCNA 2 Chapter 7
1. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0
2. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
15 hops
3. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.
4. 10.0.0.0/8
127.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16
CCNA 2 Chapter 5
**SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-band management.
SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.
SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco devices.
**SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based commands.
SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device configuration.
2. Which mode will a configured router display at login?
global configuration mode
setup mode
ROM monitor mode
**user EXEC mode
CCNA 2 Chapter 4
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.
2. Which event will cause a triggered update?
a route is installed in the routing table
3. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
3
4. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.
CCNA 2 Chapter 3
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.
3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
show ip route
CCNA 2 Chapter 2
The destination network is moved to a different interface on the same router.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.
2. Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
3. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The route is removed from the table.
4. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
a modem
a CSU/DSU device
CCNA 2 Chapter 1
the number of routers between the source and destination device
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
**the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
**whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond
2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to large-sized businesses? (Choose three.)
DSL
cable modem
Ethernet
**metro Ethernet
**T1
**T3
Final CCNA 1 ( I )
Use the ipconfig /all command at the hosts command prompt.
X Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer's website.
2 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
X A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J
Final CCNA 1 ( H )
1. Which OSI layer does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to
request retransmission?
application
presentation
session
xx transport
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which layered network model is shown in the diagram?
Cisco
IETF
OSI
xx TCP/IP
Final CCNA 1 ( G )
1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
• 0060.7320.D632
• 0060.7320.D631
• 0040.8517.44C3
• 0009.B2E4.EE03
• 0010.C2B4.3421
2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
• A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
• It uses a token system to avoid collisions.
Final CCNA 1 ( F )
Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
192.168.9.64/28
192.168.9.146/28
192.168.9.96/28
192.168.9.129/26
192.168.9.51/26
192.168.9.64/26
Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
Four collision domains are present.
One logical network is represented.
Two broadcast domains are present.
Three networks are needed.
Three logical address ranges are required.
Final CCNA 1 ( E )
1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
- 0060.7320.D632
- 0060.7320.D631
- 0040.8517.44C3
- 0009.B2E4.EE03
- 0010.C2B4.3421
2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
- It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
- After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
- A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
- Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
- Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
- It uses a token system to avoid collisions.
3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
- PC
- switch
- router interface fa 0/0
- router interface fa 0/1
Final CCNA 1 ( D )
Use the ipconfig /all command at the host�s command prompt.
----> Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.
Use the traceroute command at the command prompt to identify any failures on the path to the gateway.
Use FTP to check for connectivity to remote sites.
Download a troubleshooting tool from the PC manufacturer's website.
2 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
----> A, B, D, G
A, B, E, F
C, D, G, I
G, H, I, J
3 Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?
----> only computer D
only computer A and computer D
only computer B, computer C, and computer D
all computers
Final CCNA 1 ( C )
0040.8596.DE82
**0060.7320.B826
060.7320.D632
0010.4F74.AC09
0040.8596.DE81
exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
hub
switch
**router
wireless access point
Kamis, 25 Maret 2010
Final CCNA 1 ( B )
1. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console
of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration.
What type of cable is required for this connection?
straight-through cable
crossover cable
rollover cable
serial cable
2. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
access switch
DHCP server
hub
router
3. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on Router1?
an FTP client
a Telnet client
a terminal emulation program
a web browser
Final CCNA 1 ( A )
When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what is usually used to
acknowledge that the data was received and to request the retransmission of missing data?
IP
UDP
Ethernet
a connectionless acknowledgement
an upper-layer, connection-oriented protocol or service
Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - rollover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - rollover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable
Connection 2 - crossover cable
Connection 3 - straight-through cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable
Connection 2 - straight-through cable
Connection 3 - crossover cable